Module 3 Joint Force Leadership Post Test

Module 4 - Introduction to Joint Fundamentals Post Test

contains 12 Questions

1) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to project power in areas in which access and freedom to operate are challenged. [objective72]

Provide a stabilizing presence

Deter and defeat aggression

Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges

Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent

2) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America's security commitments. [objective73] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent

Provide a stabilizing presence

Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges

Deter and defeat aggression

3) The purpose of a(n) _____ action is to place the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power. [objective74]

maneuver

offensive

mass

objective

4) The purpose of a(n) _____ action is to place the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power. [objective75]

objective

offensive

maneuver

mass

5) These four broad areas can be integrated and adapted to satisfy a commander's requirements in a joint operation: [objective76] [Remediation Accessed :N]

political, military, infrastructure and information

diplomatic, information, military, and economic

military engagement, large- scale combat, security, and relief and reconstruction

military, economic, social, infrastructure

6) Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? [objective83]

size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility

static vs. dynamic mission sets

centralized vs. decentralized approach

base-centric vs. ship-centric

7) The _____ prescribe the chain of command within their Combatant Commands (CCMDs) and designate the appropriate command authority to be exercised by subordinate commanders. [objective78]

Combatant Commanders

Functional Combatant Commanders

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Secretaries of the Military Departments

8) The _____ is the principal military advisor to the President, the SecDef, National Security Council, and the Homeland Security Council. [objective79]

Secretary of the Army

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Inspector General of the DoD

JCS Vice Chairman

9) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments. [objective80]

Joint Task Force

Subordinate Unified Command

Specified Combatant Command

Unified Combatant Command

10) The _____ system provides many things, including the means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made. [objective81]

National Military Command

Joint Force Commander's Communication

Defense Continuity

Nuclear Command and Control

11) The Marine Corps, while also steeped in tradition and focused on the individual Marine, prides itself on its quick responsiveness and its minimal non-combatant infrastructure. This dynamic is which of the key elements to remember when working with other services? [objective82]

Static vs. dynamic mission sets

Size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility

Centralized vs. decentralized approach

Base-centric vs. ship-centric

12) _____ encompasses the exercise of authority, responsibility, and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces to accomplish the mission. [objective77]

Command and control

Movement and maneuver

Intelligence

Synergy

Module 5 - Joint Intelligence Post Test

contains 19 Questions

1) Automation technology can be used to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of _____ to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of _____ to make an assessment. [objective84]

data, information

intelligence, data

information, intelligence

data, intelligence

2) Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and may result in the production of what three products? [objective102]

Contingency Plan

National Intelligence Support Plan

Annex B: Intelligence

Dynamic Threat Assessment

3) Analysis is a synthesis of quantitative analysis and qualitative judgment and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations. [objective86]

True

False

4) Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.) [objective87] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Ensures that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders (JFCs), staff, and components

Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives

Assesses the characteristics of the adversary's decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited

Analyzes the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment

5) Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective88]

visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE

understand adversary capabilities and intentions

support a predictive estimation of the situation

6) During this activity in the joint intelligence process raw data is converted into forms that can be readily used by commanders, decision makers at all levels, intelligence analysts, and other consumers. [objective89]

Collection

Dissemination and Integration

Processing and Exploitation

Analysis and Production

7) Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements? (Select all that apply.) [objective90]

PIRs are any subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence.

Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements.

The JFC's PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements.

8) Which of the following must collection managers continuously monitor the results of? (Select all that apply.) [objective91] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Diversity and availability of intelligence dissemination paths

Effectiveness of meeting collection requirements to address the JFC's evaluation and feedback portion of the intelligence process

Processing and exploitation and production capacity

Available collection assets

9) Dissemination of information can sometimes be defined by a strategy called "push and pull". Pull _____.

involves direct electronic access to databases, intelligence files, or other repositories by intelligence organizations at all levels

refers to validating information from multiple sources

allows the higher echelons to move intelligence down to satisfy existing lower echelon requirements or to relay other relevant information to the lower level

indicates information that is pulled from raw data that cannot be validated

10) This intelligence product category involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. [objective93]

Identity Intelligence

Estimative Intelligence

Current Intelligence

Target Intelligence

11) This intelligence product category results from the fusion of identity attributes and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. [objective94]

Warning Intelligence

Identity Intelligence

General Military Intelligence

Target Intelligence

12) What level of intelligence supports joint operations across the range of military operations in an area of responsibility and determines the current and future capabilities of adversaries that could affect the national security and U.S. or allied interests? [objective95]

Force strategic

Operational

National strategic

Theater strategic

13) An intelligence estimate of the enemy campaign lines of operation based on intelligence reporting of an extremist group's use of safe houses and the local population for logistical support is an example of what level of intelligence? [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Theater strategic

Human

Tactical

Operational

14) When considering the principle of synchronization, the most common error that impacts the J2, J3, and J5 is the failure to build sufficient lead time for intelligence production. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]

False

True

15) Match each intelligence description to its product category. [objective98]

a)

Vulnerable to incomplete information and adversary deception, but should never be avoided because it helps JFCs determine enemy intentions and capabilities.

b)

Results in a finished intelligence product that provides the most accurate and complete picture possible of what is known about an activity.

c)

Requires that all intelligence sources and methods be applied in concert with the operations plan and operations order.

d)

Relies on unhindered access to and sharing of all relevant information and can take many forms such as competitive analysis, brain storming, and federation.

Synchronization

Prediction

Fusion

Collaboration

16) A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating _____. [objective99]

nongovernmental organizations

interested UN countries

state and local militias

partner nation intelligence capabilities and assessments

17) Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence? [objective100]

Department of State (DOS) Bureau of Intelligence and Research

Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)

Department of Energy (DOE)

Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

18) The _____ is the primary intelligence organization that provides support to the combatant commands. [objective101]

Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC)

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJOIC)

Joint Intelligence Support Element (JISE)

19) Technology is often applied against what common analyst challenge? [objective85]

CCIR management

Information overload

Subjective assessments

Replacing cross staff collaboration

Module 5 - Joint Intelligence Post Test

contains 4 Questions

1) Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective87]

visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE

support a predictive estimate of the situation

understand adversary capabilities and intentions

2) What is the definition of collection requirements management? [objective91]

Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities

Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information

Matching the Commander's critical information requirements with other intelligence operations

Synchronizing the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations

3) An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent? [objective96]

Tactical

Theater strategic

Operational

Human

4) Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN an intelligence brief is presented to the planning staff. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent? [objective97]

Integrity

Collaboration

Synchronization

Prioritization

Module 6 - Joint Operations Post Test

contains 24 Questions

1) Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission. [objective104]

security cooperation

major campaigns

combat operations

deterrence activities

2) During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to transfer responsibility of operations to another authority as the termination criteria. [objective127]

False

True

3) _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance. [objective106]

Foreign humanitarian assistance

Stability operations

Peace operations

Recovery operations

4) _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents. [objective107]

Homeland defense

Recovery operations

Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management

Civil support

5) By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose. [objective108]

visualize

mitigate

organize

synchronize

6) Phasing helps commanders _____ risk in the more dangerous or difficult portions of an operation. [objective109]

mitigate

synchronize

visualize

organize

7) _____ is the routine contact and interaction between individuals or elements of the U.S. Armed Forces and other nations' armed forces, or foreign and domestic civilian authorities or agencies, to build trust and confidence, share information, coordinate mutual activities, and maintain influence. [objective110]

Interdiction

Intervention

Engagement

Security cooperation

8) Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.) [objective111]

Foster a climate of peaceful cooperation

Remove forces from area

Develop a Security Cooperation Plan

Ensure joint operations forces are ready to conduct decisive operations

9) _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency. [objective112]

Continuity of operations

Engagement activities

Commitment of forces

Advance measures

10) _____ is/are actions taken directly against terrorist networks and indirectly to influence and render global and regional environments inhospitable to terrorist networks. [objective113]

Antiterrorism

Counterinsurgency

Counterterrorism

Stability operations

11) If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment. [objective114]

external threats

internal conflict

credible threats

coup d'etat

12) The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation. [objective115]

interdiction

antiterrorism

crisis response

peacekeeping operation

13) The _____ is responsible for conducting military operations to assist in the implementation of emergency action plans. [objective116]

Secretary of State

Secretary of Defense

Geographic Combatant Commander

U.S. Ambassador, or Chief of the Diplomatic Mission

14) It is imperative to have a clear national strategic end state for all types of contingencies, regardless of operation _____. [objective117]

conditions

viability

commitment

duration

15) A(n) _____ is a series of tactical actions, such as battles, engagements, and strikes. [objective118]

campaign

dominance

interdiction

major operation

16) Campaigns are _____. [objective119]

independently embarked on

the most extensive of joint operations

service oriented

low in resource requirements

17) Force protection is a required activity throughout each joint operation or campaign phase. This type of operation is a(n) _____ operation. [objective120] [Remediation Accessed :N]

defensive

offensive

stability

planning

18) _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction. [objective121]

Planning

Defensive

Offensive

Stability

19) Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase. [objective122] [Remediation Accessed :N]

seize

dominate

deter

shape

20) Stripping away enemy support and freedom of action through information operations and lines of communications, is an action in the _____ phase. [objective123] [Remediation Accessed :N]

seize

dominate

deter

shape

21) The "Seize the Initiative" phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to: (Select all that apply.) [objective124]

deny the enemy the opportunity to achieve its objectives

generate in the enemy a sense of inevitable failure and defeat

seize and maintain the initiative

denounce enemy military by using propaganda to turn public against their military leadership

22) When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces and where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions? [objective125]

linear operations in noncontiguous AOs

nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs

nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs

linear operations in contiguous AOs

23) During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists. [objective126]

True

False

24) _____ is a general term used to describe military actions conducted by joint forces or by service forces employed under command relationships. [objective105]

Range of military operations

Major operations

Strategic operations

Joint operations

Module 7 - Joint Force Sustainment Post Test

1) Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment? [objective128]

Services

USTRANSCOM

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)/Services

Joint Staff

2) Movement begins with _____. [objective153]

validating movement requirements

determining readiness

inspecting personnel and supplies

confirming ongoing mission

3) Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, Commander's intent, and operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations? [objective130]

Execution

Assessment

Planning

Control

4) A logistics synchronization matrix allows joint logistician to monitor progress by which two of the following? [objective131]

displaying the logistician's critical tasks

displaying the level of risk in which the logistician must operate

displaying the logistician's responsibilities for integration

displaying the timeline in which the logistician must complete tasks

5) Which core capability supports movement of forces and equipment? [objective132] [Remediation Accessed :N]

maintenance operations

logistic services

deployment and distribution

supply

6) Core joint logistic capabilities are the _____ used to achieve objectives. [objective133]

processes, functions, and timetables

people, places, and things

agencies, materiel, and transportation

ends, ways, and means

7) Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? [objective134] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Religious Ministry

Legal Support

Human Resources

Financial Management

8) The principles of personnel support are defined as having a _____ that is _____. [objective135]

command emphasis; responsive, and responsible

command emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible

staff emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible

staff emphasis; responsive and responsible

9) The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective136] [Remediation Accessed :N]

apportion forces to the combatant commander

collect and analyze relevant information

identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements

develop the most effective solution to a problem

10) Which of the following describes Global Force Management? (Select all that apply.) [objective137] [Remediation Accessed :N]

It aligns force assignment, apportionment, and allocation methodologies to support the National Defense Strategy, joint force availability, and assessments.

It provides the most effective solution to a personnel problem.

It provides senior decision makers a process to quickly and accurately assess the impact and risk of proposed changes to the distribution of forces and capabilities.

It offers insights into the global availability of U.S. military forces and capabilities.

11) Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force headquarters? [objective138]

SecDef

Joint Force Commander

Staff Judge Advocate

Geographic Combatant Commander

12) While employed, the Staff Judge Advocate ensures that the joint force commander understands the _____. [objective139]

requirements from host nations for a transparent legal environment in which to conduct joint operations

traffic laws and ports of entry requirements that impact transportation of personnel and materiel into the foreign nation

laws, treaties, and agreements that apply to U.S. relations with the foreign governments and their inhabitants

cultures and religious beliefs that impact U.S. relationships with the foreign inhabitants

13) A permissive operational environment describes situations when the _____. [objective140]

host government forces do not have totally effective control of the territory and population in the intended operational area (OA)

host country and law enforcement agencies have control, the intent, and the capability to assist operations that a unit needs to conduct

host government forces have some control over the population, but the forces are fractioned providing minimal support of operations

hostile forces have control, intent, and capability to effectively oppose operations

14) Which of the following is described as the ability to project the military instrument of national power? [objective141]

Global force management

Operation plan (OPLAN)

Global force projection

Concept of operations (CONOPS)

15) Which stage of the projection process is identified by the movement of forces within the operational areas (OAs), the positioning of forces into a formation for battle, or the relocation of forces and materiel to a different OA? [objective142]

Redeployment

Mobilization

Sustainment

Deployment

16) During which phase of projection are forces and materiel transferred to support another joint force Commander's operational requirements? [objective143]

Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)

Redeployment

Deployment

Sustainment

17) The strategic mobility triad is composed of which elements? [objective144] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Mobility, agility, and flexibility

Pre-positioning, airlift, and sealift

Visibility, transferability, and transportability

U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), operational control (OPCON), and operation plan (OPLAN)

18) Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands? [objective145]

Supporting Combatant Commander

Supported Combatant Commander

SecDef

Commander, Joint Chiefs of Staff

19) Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces? [objective146]

Military Departments

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

Supported Combatant Commander (CCDR)

SecDef

20) Which of the following types of plans describes the most probable outcomes of a mission and identifies force requirements? [objective147]

Crisis Plan

Contingency Plan

Operation plan (OPLAN)

Concept of operations (CONOPS)

21) Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) [objective148] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Mobility

Deployment planning

Predeployment activities

Movement

22) Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational Commander's force? [objective149]

Onward movement

Staging

Integration

Reception

23) Who is responsible for joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration? [objective150] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Supporting Combatant Commander

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Supported Combatant Commander

SecDef

24) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are defined as 'essential'? (Select all that apply.) [objective151]

contract support

communication systems

host nation support

support organizations and structures

25) During the joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) phase of redeployment, destination reception refers to _____. [objective152] [Remediation Accessed :N]

recovering the unit's assigned personnel and equipment

preparing the force for the next crisis

transporting forces via a common user or commercial lift from a port of debarkation (POD) to a demobilization station

tracking the force to determine exact location of personnel, equipment, and materiel

26) Which of the following key global providers supports the components of the joint force with equipment and supplies needed for sustained logistic readiness? [objective129] [Remediation Accessed :N]

USTRANSCOM

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)/Services

Joint Staff

Services

Module 7 - Joint Force Sustainment Post Test

contains 9 Questions

1) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. [objective132]

True

False

2) Which of the following provides plans, policy, and guidance on Service member issues? [objective134]

Joint Manpower Division

Personnel Services Division

Director's Action Group

Personnel Readiness Division

3) The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective136]

collect and analyze relevant information

identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements

apportion forces to the combatant commander

develop the most effective solution to a problem

4) Once a mission is defined by the SecDef, the joint task force headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarized in the _____. [objective137]

Global Force Management Plan

Concept of Operations (CONOPS)

Joint Manning Document

Operation Plan (OPLAN)

5) A forward deployed force and prepositioned assets, forces with organic movement capability, significantly contribute to the _____ of response. [objective144] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Strength

Flexibility

Timeliness

Success

6) Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) [objective148] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Mobility

Predeployment activities

Deployment planning

Movement

7) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are defined as 'enabling'? (Select all that apply.) [objective150]

Contract support

Multinational support

Force protection

Legal support

8) Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.) [objective152]

movement

predeployment

planning

joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)

9) The value of joint logistics can be determined by how well which of the following imperatives are attained? [objective129]

Commander's intent, operational objectives, and coordinated efforts of Services

procedures, organization of Services, and establishment of a battle rhythm

applicability of joint logistic capabilities, concept of operation (CONOPS), and rapid deployment of support

unity of effort, joint logistics environment-wide visibility, and rapid and precise response

Module 8 - Joint Operations Planning Post Test

1) _____ emphasizes planning for the next phase of operations or sequels to the current operation. [objective154] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Future plans

Future operations plans

Current operations plans

Theater-strategic plans

2) In APEX, what do branches and sequels allows planners to do? [objective170]

Update static plans in advance of execution

Predict increased complexity in missions and interactions with multinational partners

Monitor and modify the deployment and employment of forces

Anticipate significant changes in key planning variables and outline associated assumptions and decision points

3) The Joint Planning and Execution Community uses _____ to develop plans for a broad range of potential emergencies based on tasks identified in strategic documents. [objective156] [Remediation Accessed :N]

planning directive

execution

crisis action planning

deliberate planning

4) What stage of the JOPES process includes mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, rotation, and demobilization activities? [objective157]

Planning Directive

Execution

Crisis Action Planning

Deliberate Planning

5) In which area is a commander seeking an answer when he/she asks: "What sequence of actions is most likely to achieve those objectives and that end state?" [objective158] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Ends

Ways

Means

Risks

6) The primary output of operational design is an operational approach, which describes the operational environment, the problem, and _____. [objective159]

the Commander's visualization of a broad approach for achieving the desired end state

a clear understanding of the ends, ways, and means

link tactical action to strategic objectives

the framework that underpins a campaign or major operation plan

7) The _____ involves attaining a clear understanding of the CCDR's strategic objectives, and it is the most important step in the JOPP for the Joint Force Commander. If this step is done incorrectly, all planning steps which follow could be flawed. [objective160] [Remediation Accessed :N]

first step, Planning Initiation

second step, Mission Analysis

third step, Assignment of Action Development

fifth step, Assignment of Action Approval

8) The Joint Operational Planning Process, which is used during deliberate planning to produce both contingency and campaign plans, is comprised of the following steps: [objective161] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Planning Initiation; Mission Analysis; Assignment of Action Development; COA Analysis and Wargaming; COA Comparison; COA Approval; and Plan or Order Development

Determine and Analyze Operational Limitations; Determine the JFC's Specified, Implied, and Essential Tasks; Develop a Mission Statement; Conduct Initial Force Allocation Review; and Develop Risk Assessment

Planning and Mission Analysis; Assignment of Action Development; Staff Assessments; COA Approval; and EXORD Issued

Concept Development; Plan Assessment; IPR A; IPR C; and IPR R

9) During Crisis Action Planning, the staff uses the Joint Force Commander's initial planning guidance, intent statement, CCIR, and revised mission statement to support COA _____. [objective162] [Remediation Accessed :N]

analysis

development

comparison

elimination

10) The differences between deliberate planning and CAP primarily concern the following areas, except: [objective163] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Time allotted for completion

Prior information available

The end product

Operational activities

11) The supported Commander's _____ gives the Service components, supporting commands, and agencies a detailed OPLAN, and it formally tasks those involved to prepare for the operation. [objective164] [Remediation Accessed :N]

OPORD

OPLAN

WARNORD

EXORD

12) In the Joint Planning Process, _____ describes the situation, establishes command relationships, and oppla the mission and any planning constraints. [objective165] [Remediation Accessed :N]

WARNORD

PLANORD

OPLAN

ALERTORD

13) During _____, joint operations planning steps are compressed and blended together, and the Commander's direction of the staff is continuous. [objective166] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Living Planning

Adaptive Planning and Execution (APEX)

Deliberate Planning

Crisis Action Planning

14) According to doctrine, what does the staff focus on during planning? [objective167]

Determining available resources to support the end state

Developing effective plans and orders, and helping the commander make related decisions

Determining whether the Commander's situational awareness needs to be updated

Developing Assignments of action that are all reasonable and executable

15) In APEX, what does the EXORD define? [objective168]

Time to initiate operations and guidance not provided earlier

Expected impact of the selected COA

Supporting Commander's formal tasking for the execution of the mission

Planning activities allowed in advance of formal COA selection by the President and/or SecDef

16) What APEX activity is a cyclical process that assures the resulting plan has been properly adapted to address any important factors that may have changed from the time the plan was formulated? [objective169]

Concept development

Plan assessment

IPR A

IPR R

17) A Joint Force Command (JFC) headquarters usually focuses at what level of war? [objective155]

Strategic

Operational

Tactical

Module 8 - Joint Operations Planning Post Test

1) _____ emphasizes planning for branches to current operations. [objective154] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Future plans

Future operations plans

Current operations plans

Theater-strategic plans

3) In which area is a commander seeking an answer when he/she asks: "What is required to accomplish that sequence of actions within given or requested resources?" [objective158]

Ends

Ways

Means

Risks

4) Deployment planning begins during the _____, and continues through each step of the joint operation planning process. [objective160]

first step, Planning Initiation

second step, Mission Analysis

third step, Assignment of Action Development

fifth step, Assignment of Action Approval

5) In contingency planning, the _____ identifies the specific forces, functional support, and resources required to execute the plan, and it provides closure estimates for their flow into the theater. [objective161]

Commander's estimate

base plan

CONPLAN

OPLAN

6) During Crisis Action Planning, COA _____ is an objective process where the staff considers COAs independently of one another, against a set of criteria established by the Joint Force Commander and staff. [objective162]

analysis

development

comparison

elimination

7) What activity involves analysis of COAs from individual functional perspectives to determine each COA's supportability and coordinates results in a collaborative knowledge-based environment? [objective163] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Initial Report

Mission Analysis

Planning Guidance Development

Staff Estimates

8) In the Joint Planning Process, _____ saves times by allowing planning activities to begin in advance of a formal decision. [objective164] [Remediation Accessed :N]

WARNORD

PLANORD

OPLAN

ALERTORD

9) In extremely time-sensitive situations, _____ may be the only message provided. [objective165]

OPORD

OPLAN

WARNORD

EXORD

10) During _____, the Joint Force Commander will identify the operational problems to solve and determine where to focus the staff's efforts. [objective166]

Planning Initiation

Mission Analysis

Plan or Order Development

Assignment of Action Development

Module 9 - Joint Command, Control, and Communication Post Test

1) _____ is authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking. [objective171]

OPCON

TACON

ADCON

COCOM

2) _____ includes control of resources and equipment, personnel management, logistics, and individual and unit training among other areas. [objective172]

TACON

ADCON

COCOM

OPCON

3) _____ are elements of information that the commander identifies as being critical to timely decision making. [objective174]

Priority intelligence requirements

Commander's critical information requirements

Tactical information requirements

Friendly force information requirements

4) The _____ stage of the Commander's decision cycle is facilitated by the Commander's intent; CCIRs also assist the JTF HQ in this role. [objective175]

monitor

direct

plan

assess

5) The _____ stage of the Commander's decision cycle includes determination of the impact of events as they relate to overall mission accomplishment. [objective176]

assess

plan

direct

monitor

6) Which of the following is NOT a tenant of Unity of Command? [objective173]

Responsive, dependable and interoperable support systems

Network-enabled operations

Mutual trust

Timely decision making

7) For a communications system to be considered _____, the system must be procedurally and technically secure. [objective178] [Remediation Accessed :N]

sustainable

responsive

protected

survivable

8) The joint communications system supports Commander's intent and planning by enhancing situational awareness and decision making, as well as the conduct of missions. This contributes to _____. [objective179]

strategic agility

tactical flexibility

network-enabled operations

operational reach

9) The joint communications system includes doctrine, tactics, techniques, and procedures, organizational relationships, and technology. This contributes to _____. [objective180]

cyberspace

strategic agility

network-enabled operations

information superiority

10) _____ manages all deployed communication systems and serves as control agency for management and operation direction. [objective181]

NETOPS Security Center

Joint Information Management Board

Joint Network Operations Control Center

Theater Network Operations Control Center

11) Command and control systems problems are reported to the _____. [objective182] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Theater Network Operations Control Center

Joint Network Operations Control Center

NETOPS Security Center

Joint Information Management Board

12) _____ is when equipment and systems can be operated and maintained by personnel trained on any of the systems without additional specialized training. [objective177]

Responsiveness

Commonality

Liaison

Compatibility

Module 10 - Joint Fires and Targeting Overview Post Test

1) By definition, fires are the use of _____. [objective183]

weapon systems or other actions to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target

lethal weapon systems to destroy an specific enemy equipment, infrastructure, and manpower

any action to cause an effect within the operational environment

any lethal and nonlethal weapon systems

2) Which three of the following tasks, missions, and processes are joint fires? [objective184] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Conducting joint targeting

Conducting fire support training

Countering air and missile threats

Distributing emergency supplies

Conducting strategic attacks

3) What is a high-value target? [objective185] [Remediation Accessed :N]

A target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission

A loss to the enemy that will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly Assignment of action

A target that is nearly irreplaceable to enemy functions throughout the operational environment

A target that is able to cause considerable damage or disruption to friendly forces

4) What is the purpose of dynamic targeting? (Select all that apply.) [objective186] [Remediation Accessed :N]

The prosecution of planned targets known to exist in the operational environment

The prosecution of targets identified too late for normal planning

The management and prosecution of planned targets as plans change

The comprehensive prosecution of known and unknown targets to the greatest effects of lethal and nonlethal fires

5) A company of Marine infantry moving forward is engaged by enemy armor. On-call close air support is given the coordinates of the line of enemy defenses and rolls in and engages the enemy armor units with Hellfire missiles. What joint fire support task does this represent? [objective191]

Support forces in contact

Support the CONOPS

Integrate and synchronize joint fire support

Sustain joint fire support operations

6) Working from a prioritized list of targets the joint force J3 prepares tasking orders and releases these orders to all subordinate commands. What phase of the targeting process does this represent? [objective188] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Phase 4 - Commander's decision and force assignment

Phase 2 - Target development and prioritization

Phase 5 - Mission Planning and Force Execution

Phase 3 - Capabilities analysis

7) The principle of proportionality only applies when an attack may affect civilians or civilian objects and cause collateral damage. [objective189] [Remediation Accessed :N]

True

False

8) Joint Fires Element (JFE) responsibilities and tasks include which of the following (select all that apply)? [objective190]

Manage and direct intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection requirements

Develop Joint Operating Area (JOA)-wide joint targeting guidance, objectives, and priorities

Coordinate joint fires rules of engagement issues with mission partners

Conduct joint fires and targeting assessments

9) What is the focus of joint targeting? [objective187]

Achieving the JFC's objectives

Destroying the target

Employing the customary fires against targets

Employing the least amount of resources to achieved the desired effect

1) Which three of the following tasks, missions, and processes are joint fires? [objective184] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Conducting fire support training

Distributing emergency supplies

Conducting strategic attacks

Conducting joint targeting

Countering air and missile threats

2) What is a target? [objective185]

An entity or object considered for possible engagement or action

An entity or object considered for lethal fires

All enemy entities or objects

An offensive of defensive enemy weapon considered for engagement or action

3) What is the purpose of joint targeting? [objective186]

The process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them

The process of locating and isolating targets to enable the greatest lethal, on nonlethal effect

The process of designating and assigning targets to joint force subordinate commands

The process of categorizing the characteristics of all targets

4) Which one of the following phases of the targeting cycle includes understanding the military end state and the Commander's intent, and objectives and then analyzing the objectives to make sure they are observable, achievable, and reasonable? [objective188]

End State and Commander's Objectives

Target development and prioritization

Commander's decision and force assignment

Capabilities analysis

5) Which three of the following apply to the law of war principle of distinction (or discrimination)? [objective189]

Prohibits attack on civilian infrastructure such as bridges and highways

Requires the defender segregate noncombatants and refrain from placing military personnel or material in close proximity to civilian objects or locations

Attackers are required to use only those means and methods of attack that are discriminate in effect and can be controlled

Places requirements on both the attacker and the defender

Module 11 - Interorganizational Coordination and Multinational Considerations Post Test

1) Interorganizational coordination is the interaction that occurs among elements of the DoD; engaged USG agencies; state, territorial, local, and tribal agencies; foreign military forces and government agencies; intergovernmental organizations (IGOs); nongovernmental organizations (NGOs); and the private sector. [objective192]

True

False

2) For effective interorganizational coordination, JTF personnel should develop a(n) _____ perspective of the operating environment by leveraging interorganizational perspectives at the tactical, operational and strategic levels. [objective193]

joint

holistic

military

military

3) Effective multinational operations require international rationalization, standardization, and _____ with friendly nations. [objective197]

functionalization

stabilization

intercommunication

interoperability

4) Military operations inside the U.S. and its territories fall into two mission areas: [objective195]

U.S. Northern Command and North America Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)

Homeland Defense and Civil Support

Homeland Defense and Defense Support to Domestic Operations (DSDO)

Homeland Security and Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA)

5) Within an embassy, the Chief of Mission is normally _____. [objective196]

subordinate to the local combatant commander

a head of state

the embassy director

an ambassador

6) When establishing methods of coordination with other Mission Partners, it's important to establish a workable process and maintain it over time without modification, regardless of changes with relationships or in the operating environment. This will create uniformity and continuity in times of chaos. [objective194]

True

False

Module 12 - CCIR at the Operational Level Post Test

1) CCIRs that focus primarily on well-defined decision points provide the commander with a broad view to support better understanding of the complex environment. [objective198] [Remediation Accessed :N]

True

False

2) What characteristics of the complex environment have affected the view of CCIRs? (Select all that apply.) [objective199]

globalization

interdependence

predictable adversaries

information revolution

3) What can be used to ensure that the appropriate personnel are notified when information answering CCIRs and other important information requirements and events is received? [objective203]

notification criteria matrices

JOC chart

decision support templates

all of the answers are correct

4) Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE? [objective201] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Some branch and sequel planning at the operational level may not result in precise, detailed predictive decision points with associated CCIRs.

Branch and sequel planning, at the operational level, results in precise, predictive decision points with associated CCIRs.

Much of the information precipitating operational commanders' major decisions across all event horizons will likely come off the JOC floor, rather than through other venues.

Decision points supporting branch and sequel execution are normally extremely well defined and quantitative requiring minimal commander interface for decision.

5) To facilitate component and stakeholder awareness of CCIRs, where can commanders post CCIRs and their statuses? [objective202]

Commander's dashboard

web portal

operations centers

all of the answers are correct

6) What effect(s) can occur when commanders retain tactical level decision-oriented CCIRs at the operational level in lieu of decentralizing CCIRs associated with decentralized decision approval levels?

slows subordinates' agility

adds unnecessary reporting requirements

shifts HQ's focus away from setting conditions

all of the answers are correct

1) Commanders at most operational-level headquarters have observed that CCIRs are developed to support three major activities. One of these major activities is "prioritization of limited resources." The other two are _____. [objective198]

commander decision-making and branch planning

commander decision-making and understanding the complex environment

well-defined decision points and non-lethal actions

sequel planning and collection analysis

2) Which of the following choices best summarizes the key insights relating to the development, approval, and dissemination of CCIRs? [objective201] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Planners drive the development of CCIRs as commanders collaborate with partners to ensure the relevance of CCIRs. These CCIRs must be constantly monitored to ensure they transcend all three event horizons and met higher-headquarters priorities.

Commanders drive the development of CCIRs as planners help develop the CCIRs exclusively in the current operations event horizon. CCIRs will likely not include partner actions but may change as the mission changes. A process to periodically review CCIRs provides little benefit and thus is not required.

Commanders drive the development of CCIRs. Planners help develop CCIRs to support understanding and decision making across all three event horizons. CCIRs may likely include DIME partner actions and change as the operating environment changes. CCIRs should be periodically reviewed and updated.

Module 13 - Gaining and Sharing Information and Knowledge Post Test

1) In order to help support the commanders' decision-making process, the staff must understand the commanders' information needs. What is a good starting point to focus the staff and its limited resources to provide relevant information to support decision-making? [objective213]

Commander's critical information requirements (CCIR)

knowledge management plan (KMP)

digital rules of engagement

operations plan (OPLAN)

2) Which of the following statements about the Commander's perspectives is FALSE? [objective214]

In order to gain situational understanding, commanders are emphasizing an increased reliance on processes and technological solutions, rather than people interaction.

Commanders can greatly assist their staff by sharing their unique perspectives.

Commanders should instill a climate of seamless information sharing and push toward "co-creation" of context.

Commanders should focus their units and staff through Commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) that address both necessary decisions and information needs.

3) What benefit(s) can commanders derive from the myriad of players and information flows that make up the complex operational environment? [objective215]

There is little benefit, if any, to be gained from the myriad of players and information flows. The 'costs' associated with the complex environment far outweigh any benefit which may be gained.

Commanders at every level can gain situational awareness through the many different compartmentalized processes and technologies that each player brings.

Experience, expertise, and perspectives can be leveraged through collaboration and dialogue among many players.

4) Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today's headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions? [objective216]

KM is people-centric. IM is information technology-centric.

KM is technology-centric. IM is people-centric.

KM focuses on the rules, procedures, applications, and tools. IM focuses on the players gaining and sharing knowledge to aid decision making.

KM balances the need-to-share with the need-to-know. IM leverages the different perspectives of the myriad of players.

5) What serves as an authoritative document(s) that sets the standards for the collection and dissemination of information to support timely informed decisions and maintain shared situational awareness? [objective221]

knowledge management plan (KMP) and information management plan (IMP)

knowledge management guide (KMG) and information management guide (IMG)

operations plan (OPLAN) and operations order (OPORD)

national military strategy

6) What information management (IM) activity is normally a theater-level decision because of its significant second order effects, such as interoperability within the joint force, fielding and pre-mission training? [objective218] [Remediation Accessed :N]

development of procedures into a formalized, authoritative document

battle rhythm development maintenance procedures

determination of the networks, databases, and software applications

use of Commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) to guide and prioritize information flow

7) Which of the following roles is responsible for the day-to-day implementation of the knowledge management plan (KMP) within the respective directorates? [objective219]

J-codes directors

knowledge management representative (KMR)

commander

J6

8) What process-centric insight(s) can be drawn from the three critical processes that comprise the larger knowledge management (KM) construct? [objective220]

develop and refine KM processes through an integrated KM working group

spend time developing the battle rhythm

minimize the number of collaborative events, both physical and virtual

all answers are correct

9) What action(s) should commanders consider to ensure information sharing with partners of foreign countries? [objective217]

developing sufficient capacity to enable foreign disclosure and information sharing (includes having Foreign Disclosure Officers (FDO) on the staff)

instilling an inclusive mindset that balances a "need-to-share" and "need-to-know" mentality with stakeholders

considering both physical and virtual collaboration means to gain information and develop knowledge

all answers are correct

Module 14 - Interorganizational Coordination Post Test

1) The boundaries used by many regionally focused USG agencies do not fully align with the geographic combatant Commander's _____. [objective222]

national-strategic objectives

strategic and theater-strategic objectives

area of responsibility

information and coordination plans

2) _____ is the synchronization, coordination, and/or integration of governmental and nongovernmental activities with military operations. [objective223]

Unity of decision

Unity of effort

Unified action

Unified direction

3) Joint Publication 0-2 states: "The United States relies for its security on the complementary application of the_____: diplomatic, informational, military, and economic (DIME)." [objective224]

basic instruments of national power

basic instruments of international power

basic measurements of non-state actors

basic variables of effect

4) Use all means possible when sharing information with stakeholders, but don't rely solely on _____. [objective228] [Remediation Accessed :N]

personal relationships

physical collaboration

trusted relationships

virtual collaboration

5) The _____ is responsible for recommending and implementing national policy regarding the foreign country, and is responsible for overseeing the activities of USG employees. [objective226]

senior defense official

joint task force liaison officer

chief of mission

U.S. Defense Attache Office

6) Commanders must achieve some technical means of information sharing with stakeholders during an operation. Which of the following is an important factor in effective information sharing? [objective227]

insist on frequent face-to-face meetings

codify tenants of the communication plan into a formal agreement

emphasize virtual information sharing above other methods

avoid over-classifying information

7) Liaison officers from other agencies and your liaison officer to other agencies can be key actors who support you by doing what? [objective225]

providing support to the area that best maps to their previous J-code

spending as much time as possible participating in working groups

augmenting the core joint interagency coordination group

enabling communication and solving problems

Module 15 - JTF Level Command Relationships and Joint Force Organization Post Test

1) Which of the following, concerning mission, command highlights the importance of Commander's intent? (Select all that apply.) [objective229] [Remediation Accessed :N]

enables disciplined, responsible initiative and timely decision making at subordinate level

helps guide subordinate and supporting commanders actions to achieve the Commander's desired results absent further orders

fuses understanding, assigned mission, and understanding to subordinates

2) To conduct specific mission sets throughout the entire joint operations area, what do many joint force commanders choose to establish? [objective230]

sole focus on a geographically-based command such as the regional commands in Afghanistan

geographically-oriented components and/or task forces

functionally-oriented components and/or task forces working in concert with geographically-oriented components or task forces

3) Which of the following responsibilities would you expect the "establishing authority" to have? [objective233] [Remediation Accessed :N]

coordinate specific functions between two or more military departments or forces

require consultation between the agencies involved, but do not compel agreement

stay involved, but avoid arbitrating and resolving conflicting priorities

set conditions for and demand crosstalk among supported and supporting commanders

4) Which of the following statements about the supported/supporting command relationship is FALSE? [objective232] [Remediation Accessed :N]

The supported commander does not have the authority to prioritize targets or objectives.

The supporting commander provides the supported commander access to his or her capabilities within the guidance and priorities expressed by the establishing authority.

The supporting commander should send liaison to the supported commander to assist in planning efforts and ensuring common situational awareness.

The supporting commander should both ascertain and satisfy the needs of the supported commander.

5) A continuing challenge in today's decentralized operations is maintaining situational awareness of other joint task force elements operating in the battlespace. What are some joint task force level commanders doing to effectively deal with this challenge? [objective231]

providing BSOs with greater access to host-nation assets

fuller use of imagery to discern locations of forces

providing battlespace owners (BSO) with "coordinating authority" to ensure good coordination with other JTF entities

expanding the areas of operation (AO)

1) In order to gain the insight and foresight required to make effective decisions, leaders at every level must seek to create a _____ of the complex environment. [objective229]

strategic analysis

common understanding

detailed picture

common focus

2) How should the supported commander address lack of support issues? [objective233]

The supported commander should immediately adjust priorities to meet desired outcomes.

Lack of support is common in a complex environment. The supported commander should expect this and have an alternate plan ready.

The supported commander should bring lack of support issues immediately to the establishing authority.

The supported commander should bring lack of support issues to the supporting commander first, and if necessary to the establishing authority for resolution.

3) Which of the following can be described as the most powerful command relationship in terms of gaining access to additional capabilities? [objective232]

tactical control (TACON)

operational control (OPCON)

support

Module 16 - Design and Planning Post Test

1) Which of the following choices best describes how design enriches planning, and states the differences between the two? [objective244]

Design actions generally consist of more "brainstorming" - dialogue, critical reasoning, and creative thinking, whereas planning actions consist of more deliberate analytical thinking and detailed production of plans and orders.

In most situations, design replaces planning and consists of deliberate analytical thinking. Planning is more than a broadened view of mission analysis often laying out unclear underlying tasks.

In most situations, planning does not replace design, but design is incomplete without planning. Design is also more than a broadened view of mission analysis laying out very clear underlying tasks.

Design consists of deliberate analytical thinking and detailed production of plans and orders, whereas planning involves more "brainstorming" - dialogue, critical reasoning, and creative thinking.

2) Which of the following links design activities to more detailed planning commonly associated with the joint operation planning process (JOPP)? [objective245] [Remediation Accessed :N]

operational planning team (OPT)

the joint operation planning and execution system (JOPES)

an operational approach

the Commander's Decision Cycle

3) In an emerging crisis, such as a foreign humanitarian assistance (FHA) situation, how can commanders and planners best deal with the effect time constraints may have on design? (Select all that apply.) [objective246] [Remediation Accessed :N]

understand that their operational approach may be refined as time passes and their situational awareness will grow through internal and external efforts

understand the nature of their supporting role to any other lead organization

devote as much time as possible up front in gaining the best possible understanding of the problem before moving to detailed planning and execution

4) What has given commanders the ability to leverage many joint capabilities at the lowest levels? [objective247]

The "co-creation of context" principle has given commanders unique viewpoints to leverage joint capabilities.

Recent changes in joint command hierarchical structures have enabled commanders to delegate authority more efficiently across all echelons.

Advances in information technology have enabled collaborative and decentralized approaches to better understand the operational environment.

5) Which of the following statements describes characteristics of a well-written problem statement that can help focus the staff and subsequent planning process? [objective248]

The problem statement should not allow external stakeholders to gain a shared, common understanding, but should lead the commander and planners to quickly narrow the focus.

The problem statement should mirror the mission statement to avoid any ambiguity as to what the end state should be.

The problem statement should not pose a solution, accounts for current circumstances, and does not predict what future actions may occur.

The problem statement should focus on solving the problem and should directly, or implicitly, propose solutions.

6) As a crisis emerges within the combatant command's areas of responsibility, the deliberate planning conducted in anticipation of the crisis is adapted to the situation. This sharpens the combatant command's focus on what three concurrent operations? [objective249] [Remediation Accessed :N]

Past operations, present operations, and future operations

Deep operations, operations on the flanks, and regional operations

Current operations, future operations, and deep operations

Deep operations, tactical operations, and strategic operations

7) How can joint force headquarters ensure unified action within the multi-echelon process? [objective256]

reducing the amount of "touch points" and "planners huddle" events, to prevent cramming within the battle rhythm

limit the number of planning efforts to their capacity to plan

understand how they fit into the decision cycles of other units across the three event horizons

8) Commanders drive the development of _____. Planners help develop Commander's critical information requirements (CCIRs) beginning in _____ and continuing during the planning process across all three event horizons. [objective251]

CCIRs; Assignment of action analysis

design; mission analysis

design; Assignment of action development

CCIRs; design

9) What is the key to success in integrating both lethal and nonlethal activities during planning? [objective252]

including stakeholders from the very beginning of the design and planning process

knowing the Commander's decision making processes and "touch points"

including the liaison officers (LNOs) in all the decision points

including stakeholders once a comprehensive operational approach has been determined

10) Adaptive planning centers on _____. [objective253] [Remediation Accessed :N]

an operational-level "Pinnacle" plan

an operational-level "Capstone" plan

a strategic-level "Pinnacle" plan

a strategic-level "Capstone" plan

11) Which of the following statement(s) describes a benefit of training exercises? [objective254]

the "execution" can be repeatable

can serve as a "surrogate" for execution of the plan

can be constructed in a virtual/constructive manner

12) Which of the following statements best highlights the benefit of organization in design and planning efforts? [objective255]

Organization provides an intensive venue for the focused, structured dialogue that drives design and subsequent planning.

Organization will eliminate all seams in the three event horizons.

Organization can contribute to quick translation of the Commander's guidance and intent, and can efficiently devise suitable operational approaches.

13) How can joint task force (JTF) headquarters promote the sharing of design products to the greatest extent possible? [objective250]

ensuring design products are at a classification level that promotes sharing

by not promote the sharing of design products due to the risks associated with divulging classified information

carefully choosing stakeholders to ensure they are cleared to access the available design products

1) Well informed dissenting opinions in the Assignment of dialogue for design activities should _____. [objective245]

never be considered due to the potential biases

be considered to better develop an operational approach

only be considered by members of the initial planning team

2) The commander and his staff must work to clearly display objectives and end states by phase, demonstrating explicitly their incorporation of what elements of design? (Select all that apply.) [objective246]

arranging operations (through phasing)

lines of effort

logistics

strategic communication

end state

3) Combatant command operations influence planning focus by prioritizing and resourcing planning efforts across which level(s) of planning? (Select all that apply.) [objective249] [Remediation Accessed :N]

policy

tactical

operational

mission

strategy

4) Which of the following provides the foundation for "living plans" designed and resourced to achieve national defense and military strategic objectives in a manner that is both militarily and politically acceptable? [objective253] [Remediation Accessed :N]

tactical planning process

adaptive planning process

operational planning process

deliberate planning process

Module 17 - Communications Strategy Post Test

1) Of the following, which apply to the "battle for the narrative?" (Select all that apply.) [objective257]

seeks to gain superiority over the adversary's narrative

attempts to align communication efforts

it is commander driven

adversaries do not participate in the "battle for the narrative"

the information environment should be passive

2) Commanders have recognized the need for some form of staff organization that can _____ to inform or influence the audiences in support of desired outcomes. (Select all that apply.)

remain passive in the information environment

synchronize actions, words, and images

direct communication strategy through a stove-piped process

craft the themes and messages

3) Planning for communication activities involves the careful alignment of themes and messages with which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective259] [Remediation Accessed :N]

higher and lower headquarters

lead agencies for the law enforcement element of national power

lead agencies for the diplomatic element of national power

lead agencies for the intelligence element of national power

coalition partners

U.S. government interagency partners

4) For the actions that support the communication strategy, why is assessment important? [objective264]

Assessment helps to focus and redirect communication efforts when the environment changes.

Strategies are static and unchanging.

Assessment determines the assets available to the commander.

Strategies enrich understanding of information operations.

5) Which of the following are key elements of a communication strategy? [objective261]

condition, opportunity, and audience

narrative, theme, and message

words, actions, and audience

stability, peace, and prosperity

6) Which of the following are challenges commanders face in identifying key audiences? (Select all that apply.) [objective262]

Key audiences may overlap local, regional, and global arenas.

Key audiences will all have the same reactions to words, actions, and images.

Key audiences could be any group of people who may impact the joint task force's operations.

Key audiences may be adversarial, neutral, or friendly.

Key audiences do not include groups of people who are hostile to the mission.

7) The communication strategy working group (CSWG) is informed by subordinate units and the interagency stakeholders, and supports planning across the current operations, future operations, and future plans event horizons. [objective263]

True

False

8) Communication strategy is not a separate or parallel effort, but an integral part of the Commander's overall strategy that ensures a shared understanding of the Commander's vision, mission, and objectives. [objective260]

True

False

Module 18 - Joint HQ Organization, Staff Integration, and Battle Rhythm Post Test

1) Which of the following headquarters organization options provide a better focus on a specific mission area, such as theater security cooperation? [objective265]

mission-based organization

functional organization

hybrid organization

J-code organization

2) When forming a new headquarters organization, how can one best deal with the challenge of integrating external stakeholders? [objective266]

The establishment of the internal relationships among the functional component core is a key element to including external stakeholders.

First, establish all internal organizational stakeholders, and then fill the necessary gaps with external stakeholder elements.

Think "inclusion" from the beginning, and establish a process to include external stakeholders in cross-functional venues.

A positive command climate and logical organizational design is all that is required to ensure integration of external stakeholders.

3) Which of the following headquarters organization options continues to be the preferred basic staff structure for a joint headquarters? [objective268]

mission-based organization

J-code organization

functional organization

hybrid organization

4) How can headquarters staff personnel effectively deal with the challenge of unplanned demands from higher headquarters that may affect the battle rhythm? [objective269]

The battle rhythm should be managed by a J-code director or deputy when necessary, so that the commander can deal with the unplanned event.

The battle rhythm must be sufficiently flexible to provide the support to the commander in dealing with the event, and still be able to function in the Commander's absence.

Headquarters staff personnel should maintain constant communication with higher headquarters in an effort to prevent unplanned events which may affect the battle rhythm.

The battle rhythm should be packed with events that ensure all demands from higher headquarters are being met, thereby minimizing unplanned events.

5) Regardless of mission, size, or scope, the creation of an effective staff battle rhythm starts with _____. [objective270]

higher headquarters demands

the commander

the joint planning team

the J3

6) Which of the following terms relates to key times when commanders interact with their staffs? [objective267]

"critical paths"

"hold points"

"touch points"

"white space"

Module 19 - Intelligence Operations at the Operational Level Post Test

1) Joint intelligence organizations analyze the impact of the operating environment (OE) on mission accomplishment. Which of the following is not an aspect of the OE? [objective275]

friendly, adversary, and neutral systems

joint task force (JTF) financials

physical domains

information environment

2) Central Asia remains an unattractive destination for foreign direct investment because of political instability and low manufacturing output. This is a crisis of _____. [objective289]

regional economy

demographics

natural resources

transnational terrorism

3) Freezing narco-barons' assets at international banks falls under which diplomatic, informational, military and economic (DIME) activity? [objective277]

military

economic

informational

diplomatic

4) Which of the following is a challenge of tailoring and balancing intelligence capacity? [objective278]

location

fusion centers

narrowing targets

limited intelligence assets

5) Which of the following is a non-traditional information resource? [objective279]

human intelligence

coalition

national systems

polls

6) Intelligence at the _____ level assists in developing national strategy and policy, monitors the international situation, assists in developing military plans, and assists in determining major weapon systems and force structure requirements. [objective280]

strategic

tactical

operational

national

7) Which of the following is an operational level center of gravity (COG)? [objective281] [Remediation Accessed :N]

manpower

critical capabilities

political leaders

military force

8) _____ locations ensure agility, speed, and depth of intelligence analysis and support. [objective282]

Reachback

Forward

9) You can establish daily video conferences to contact a broader base of analysts stateside using the/a _____. [objective283]

Swe-dish

secure internet protocol router network(SIPRnet)

joint worldwide intelligence communications system (JWICS)

non-classified internet protocol router network (NIPRnet)

10) During operational level, force-on-force confrontations, the _____ utilizes a macro-analytic approach that seeks to identify an adversary's vulnerabilities and centers of gravity (COGs). [objective284]

joint intelligence support element (JISE)

intelligence fusion center

joint intelligence operation center (JIOC)

joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment (JIPOE)

11) When users access information at their own discretion it is referred to as _____. [objective285]

pull communication

open communication

push communication

secure internet protocol router (SIPR)

12) At the discretion of a subordinate joint force commander (JFC), a joint task force (JTF) _____ may be established during the initial phases of an operation to augment the subordinate joint force J2 element. [objective286] [Remediation Accessed :N]

intelligence fusion center

joint intelligence operation center (JIOC)

intelligence federation

joint intelligence support element (JISE)

13) _____ focus on the information the commander must have to assess the status of the friendly force and its supporting capabilities. [objective287]

Host nation information requirements (HNIRs)

Priority intelligence requirements (PIRs)

Specific information requirements (SIRs)

Friendly force information requirements (FFIRs)

14) Most commands make prioritization a(n) _____ teamed effort. [objective288]

operations-strategy

intelligence-planning

intelligence-logistics

operations-intelligence

15) In _____, information is structured to a tactical level focus, where information enables operations. [objective276] [Remediation Accessed :N]

humanitarian assistance/disaster relief

irregular warfare

traditional warfare

peacekeeping operations

Module 20 - Integration of Lethal and Nonlethal Actions Post Test

1) Integrating lethal and nonlethal actions at the operational level helps to avoid "effects fratricide" while delegating detailed tactical-level synchronization to subordinate units and other stakeholders. [objective290]

True

False

2) The "cradle to grave" mindset facilitates successful integration through all of the following, EXCEPT: [objective291]

integration is a consideration from the beginning of forming and organizing staff through all phases of planning and execution

facilitates feedback through the Commander's individual assessment

includes synchronization of designated actions

planning continues to refinement via a targeting-like process

3) The Commander's _____, which are developed in design and planning, drive targeting. (Select all that apply.) [objective292]

guidance

objectives

intent

4) Which headquarters processes are considered to be the overarching staff integrating processes used to support decision-making? [objective293]

design, planning, and targeting

design, planning, and assessment

planning, targeting, and synchronization

planning, targeting, and assessment

5) Which of the following critical paths involves the selected governance and development working groups that identify, assess, and resource requirements in support of the operational concept? [objective298] [Remediation Accessed :N]

stability

lethal actions

steering

inform and influence

6) Which of the following statements about the targeting process is FALSE? [objective295]

Targeting enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and nonlethal response to them.

The purpose of targeting is to integrate and synchronize fires into joint operations.

Many staffs are utilizing critical paths for their lines of operation that culminate in a decision venue for the commander to achieve integrated action.

The targeting cycle facilitates selecting and prioritizing a broad range of targets only for lethal actions.

7) Which of the following elements of staff organization solve a single planning problem on a single event horizon? [objective296] [Remediation Accessed :N]

J-code staff elements

civil military operations (CMO)

working groups

operational planning teams (OPT)

8) Under which of the of the following staff organization options is there is an additional focus on nonlethal planning and execution? [objective297]

traditional (Separate JFE and J39)

J3 effects coordination center (ECC)

inform and influence center

9) Which of the following statements best defines "targeting"? [objective294] [Remediation Accessed :N]

core task of the fires function that encompasses many disciplines and requires participation from many joint force staff elements and components

employment of forces in the operational area through movement in combination with fires to achieve a position of advantage in respect to the enemy in order to accomplish the mission

process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities

entity, object, capability, function, individual, or behavior considered for possible engagement or other action to support the Commander's guidance, intent, or objectives

1) This critical path involves the use of a joint targeting working group (JTWG) that enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and supporting nonlethal responses. [objective298] [Remediation Accessed :N]

steering

stability

inform and influence

lethal actions

2) Which of the following statements about the central role of planning for integration is FALSE? [objective296]

Planning of lethal and nonlethal actions is inseparable.

Battle rhythm working groups are dependent on coordination with the inform and influence center.

Lethal and nonlethal actions complement each other.

Crosstalk between planning efforts within B2C2WGs is important.

3) Which of the following statements best defines "maneuvers"? [objective294]

entity, object, capability, function, individual, or behavior considered for possible engagement or other action to support the Commander's guidance, intent, or objectives

process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities

core task of the fires function that encompasses many disciplines and requires participation from many joint force staff elements and components

employment of forces in the operational area through movement in combination with fire

Module 21 - Joint Sustainment Post Test

1) How can the sustainment community provide better support to the components and the Commander's decision-making? [objective299]

The sustainment community provides better support when it comes together as a team that is fully integrated across the staff.

The sustainment community provides better support when it focuses closer on the tactical fight.

The sustainment community provides better support when its numbers of available staff personnel are commensurate with the size of the tactical force it is designated to support.

2) Which of the following can provide another layer of command and control for an area support role but, if not carefully considered, can replicate existing functions and services that may already be provided by elements of the joint force? [objective300]

joint deployment distribution operations center

joint operations support facility

joint logistics command

joint logistics operation center

3) Which of the following statements about deployment considerations is TRUE? [objective301]

Planning efforts are led by the J3 and guided by the J4.

Planning efforts are led by the J4 and guided by the Commander's articulation of movement orders.

Deployment planning in the joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES) is optional.

Deployment planning in the joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES) is an operational requirement.

4) Why is it important to have operational contract support (OCS) expertise on a joint staff? (Select all that apply.) [objective302]

development of a plan to integrate and manage contractors on the battlefield

considerations to reduce the uniformed "footprint" using contact support to supplement/replace military support capabilities

consideration of contract support requirements in the joint operational planning process

5) Integrating the sustainment team early into the _____ phase of the Commander's Decision Cycle enables it to help set conditions for success. [objective308]

assess

direct

monitor

design and planning

6) Which of the following is/are important insights related to health services support (HSS) considerations? (Select all that apply.) [objective304]

include medical planners from the start of operational planning

recognize the potential impact providing medical care may have upon local or national medical infrastructure

recognize that HSS may be a line of operation for foreign humanitarian assistance operations

7) One of the benefits of proactively managing the joint manning and augmentation process is that staff sections can identify exact skills and requirements to ensure an accurate joint manning document (JMD) sourcing process to fulfill identified requirements. [objective305]

True

False

8) Which of the following are tools used to maintain accountability for personnel status, casualty tracking, and reporting? (Select all that apply.) [objective306]

defense casualty information processing (DCIPS)

joint personnel status and casualty report (JPERSTAT)

joint flow and system for tracking (JFAST)

9) Which of the following statements is true regarding organizing the various staff sections as a sustainment team? [objective307]

The primary JFC staff sections that would make up the sustainment team include the J1, J4, J8, Engineer, Surgeon, Legal, and Chaplain.

The sustainment team should always be organized under the oversight of a deputy commanding general - support (DCG-S).

Organizing the staff as a sustainment team is never effective at the component level and below.

10) Which of the following entities can be established by the JFC staff to ensure unity of effort between engineers, civil affairs, and the many other stakeholders involved in civil-military engineering projects? [objective303]

joint civil - military engineer board

joint logistics operations center

joint civil affairs board

army logistic civil augmentation program

Module 22 - Assessment Post Test

1) Which of the following statements about assessment is TRUE? [objective309]

Task assessment, much like after action reports and "hot washes," helps review and improve techniques and procedures in how joint forces perform tasks.

Campaign assessment focuses on "are we doing things right" by assessing performance of the operational assignments.

The "why" and "so what" questions of the assessment process can be answered solely through collection and monitoring of relevant information.

2) Which of the following is an example of a measure of effectiveness (MOE) indicator? [objective310] [Remediation Accessed :N]

integration with supporting commanders

forces or civilians injured

rounds fired

number of explosives discovered

3) What important constraints must the staff consider in order to craft the best assessment products for the commander? [objective314] [Remediation Accessed :N]

The staff must use color-coding products to depict statuses, and must provide a tailored framework to allow sharing and discussion among commanders.

The staff must incorporate recommendations that are developed by the assessment cell, and must provide the commander with as many metrics as possible to assist the Commander's decision-making.

The staff must understand how the commander wants to get the information, and must ensure clear connections between the objectives and the metrics they are using.

4) The basis for establishing an assessment includes all of the following, EXCEPT? [objective312]

Assessment helps deepen the understanding of the operational environment.

The plan, including unit's mission, objectives, and desired environmental conditions, forms the basis for assessment.

Assessment supports joint force progress towards accomplishing the mission.

Assessment enables an accurate visualization of past success as a template for all future missions.

5) The J2 plays an important role in assessment because _____. [objective313]

their perspectives enrich the assessment process

they provide much of the information for the operational environment assessment

they have operations research systems analysis (ORSA) expertise

they leverage staff and battlefield circulation

6) Which headquarters level typically focuses assessment on answering the question "Are we doing things right?" [objective311] [Remediation Accessed :N]

tactical

operational

theater strategic

1) Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)? [objective310]

straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan

used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment

upfront correct determination of measures-of-effectiveness planning

enable an accurate visualization of progress toward mission accomplishment

2) Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE? [objective314]

Staff assessments should provide recommendations to the commander based upon the assessment.

Recommendations are normally not developed by the assessment cell, but rather by the affected/responsible staff focused on specific lines of operation.

Staff assessments products do not necessarily have to support the Commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information.

3) Which headquarters level looks more broadly at assessment within their area of responsibility and often concentrates assessment efforts on determining whether progress has been made toward accomplishing the mission? [objective311] [Remediation Accessed :N]

operational

tactical

theater strategic